Name: 
 

Pharmacy Technician Certification Practice Test #3



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

If a prescription calls for 375 mg of penicillin per day for ten days, how much of a 250 mg/5 ml suspension should
be dispensed?
a.
50 ml
b.
75 ml
c.
100 ml
d.
125 ml
 

 2. 

The expiration date on a bottle of Vicodin is 5/13. When does this drug expire?
a.
midnight 4/30/13
b.
midnight 5/1/13
c.
midnight 5/31/13
d.
midnight 5/13/current year
 

 3. 

Pseudoephedrine is contraindicated with which of the following?
a.
hypertension
b.
anemia
c.
cancer
d.
glaucoma
 

 4. 

If a non-controleed prescrition is written for ‘refills prn’, how long is this prescription refillable?
a.
6 months
b.
1 year
c.
2 years
d.
5 years
 

 5. 

If you have 25% dextrose and 10% dextrose, how many ml of each would you need to make 1000 ml of a 20%
solution?
a.
500 ml of 25% and 500 ml of 10%
b.
667 ml of 25% and 333 ml of 10%
c.
750 ml of 25% and 250 ml of 10%
d.
833 ml of 25% and 167 ml of 10%
 

 6. 

Codeine and oxycodone are both classified as:
a.
Schedule I
b.
Schedule II
c.
Schedule III
d.
Schedule IV
 

 7. 

What is the SIG code for “every bedtime”?
a.
P.C.
b.
q.h.
c.
q.h.s.
d.
h.s.
 

 8. 

The abbreviation PRN means:
a.
per hour
b.
penicillin
c.
per rectum
d.
as needed
 

 9. 

Which agency is responsible for regulating safety in the work place?
a.
DEA
b.
FDA
c.
FDC
d.
OSHA
 

 10. 

What is the term for the process by which substances are taken up and transported to the bloodstream?
a.
absorption
b.
distribution
c.
metabolism
d.
excretion
 

 11. 

Which of the following is a valid DEA Number?
a.
AH3126426
b.
AH1462316
c.
AH1327142
d.
AH2361342
 

 12. 

Diflucan suspension is available in 40 mg/ml (35 ml bottle). A prescription calls for 6 mg/kg on day one then:
3 mg/kg qd x 14 days. A child weighs 23 lbs. What are the directions going to be?
a.
Give 3 ml po day 1, then 1.6 ml qd x 14d.
b.
Give 5 ml po day 1, then 2.5 ml qd x 14d.
c.
Give 1.5 ml po day 1, then 0.8 ml qd x 14d.
d.
Give 0.5 ml po day 1, then 0.4 ml qd x 14d.
 

 13. 

If a vial of heparin contains 20,000 U/ml, how many ml are needed for a 12,500 U dose?
a.
0.25 ml
b.
0.5 ml
c.
0.625 ml
d.
0.75 ml
 

 14. 

Two drugs are to be combined in a 3:1 ratio to produce a needed solution. How much of each drug is required to
make 80 ml of the solution?
a.
60 ml/20 m1
b.
20 ml/60 m1
c.
50 m1/30 ml
d.
30 m1/50 ml
 

 15. 

An IV has been ordered to run at 2.5 gtts/min. The IV contains 875 mg of drug in a total of
250 ml. How many mg of drug will be given to the patient per hour if the IV is to set to deliver 15 gtts/ml?
a.
25 mg/hr
b.
35 mg/hr
c.
45 mg/hr
d.
55 mg/hr
 

 16. 

The directions for a medication read “i-ii gtts a.s. q4h X 10 days.” What is the meaning of “a.s.”
a.
in right eye
b.
in left eye
c.
in both ears
d.
in left ear
 

 17. 

Which of the following medications does not require a PPI each time it is dispensed?
a.
Accutane
b.
Premarin
c.
Proventil
d.
all of the above require a PPI each time it is dispensed
 

 18. 

Which of the following drugs is a beta blocking agent?
a.
Tenormin
b.
Lotensin
c.
Procardia
d.
Calan
 

 19. 

Which of the following drugs is not a calcium channel blocker?
a.
Isoptin
b.
Cardizem
c.
Vascor
d.
Dilantin
 

 20. 

A prescription for Coumadin 7.5 mg reads “ii tabs po bid X 3 days, ii tabs po qd X 3 days i tab po qd X 2 days.”  How many tablets should be dispensed?
a.
16 tablets
b.
20 tablets
c.
22 tablets
d.
24 tablets
 

 21. 

Which method should be used when measuring liquid in a graduated cylinder?
a.
place cylinder on level surface and read meniscus from above
b.
place cylinder on level surface and read meniscus from below
c.
hold cylinder at eye level and read the top of the meniscus
d.
hold cylinder at eye level and read the bottom of the meniscus
 

 22. 

This is the process of reducing solids into fine particles by rubbing them with a mortar and pestle. It is used to
reduce the size of particles and to blend powders.
a.
levigation
b.
trituration
c.
decantation
d.
filtration
 

 23. 

This is the process of reducing the size of particles and incorporating solids into lotions, creams and ointments. It
also refers to the formation of a paste by adding small amounts of a liquid or ointment base to powder with a spatula.
a.
levigation
b.
trituration
c.
decantation
d.
filtration
 

 24. 

Which of the following is the best definition for therapeutic equivalence?
a.
Two drugs are the same size, shape and color
b.
Two drugs are categorized in the same therapeutic class and produce the same therapeutic effect
c.
Two drugs that have the same active ingredients but different dosage forms
d.
Two drugs of different classes that are equally effective at the same strength and dosage
 

 25. 

What is the storage requirement for Ceclor 125 mg/5 ml after reconstitution?
a.
2-8 degrees C
b.
8-15 degrees C
c.
15-30 degrees C
d.
30-45 degrees C
 

 26. 

The process that moves a drug from the bloodstream to the area where it will exert its pharmacological effect is
called:
a.
absorption
b.
distribution
c.
metabolism
d.
excretion
 

 27. 

If a patient gives you an empty vial of oxycodone and requests a refill, what should you do?
a.
Check the prescription to make sure that refills are available
b.
Ask the pharmacist to call the doctor for a refill
c.
Refill the prescription immediately
d.
Tell the patient the prescription is not refillable
 

 28. 

If a drug or medical device has been found to cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health
consequences, which type of recall would this be classified as?
a.
Class I
b.
Class II
c.
Class III
d.
Class IV
 

 29. 

A ____________ drug recall indicates that the product will cause serious adverse health conditions or death.
a.
Class I
b.
Class II
c.
Class III
d.
Class IV
 

 30. 

If a father calls the pharmacy and tells the pharmacy technician that his 18 month old baby ingested a small amount of poison, what should the technician NOT do?
a.
Recommend that the father speak with the pharmacist
b.
Recommend that the father call his pediatrician
c.
Recommend that the father induce vomiting with Ipecac syrup
d.
Recommend that the father take the baby to the emergency room
 

 31. 

A product’s NDC number is grouped into three sections.  The first five digits identify:
a.
the manufacturer of the drug product
b.
the product name, strength and doasage form
c.
the package size
d.
the distributor of the drug product
 

 32. 

Which of the following is NOT a diuretic?
a.
Bumex
b.
Dyazide
c.
Lasix
d.
Zantac
 

 33. 

Lanoxin would be classified into which of the following categories?
a.
antiarrhythmic
b.
anticoagulant
c.
anti-infective
d.
antiulcer
 

 34. 

Which dosage form is designed to dissolve in the intestines, not in the stomach?
a.
effervescent tablets
b.
enteric coated tablets
c.
extneded-release tablets
d.
matrix tablets
 

 35. 

The directions for use of a drug read “i-ii sl prn.”  What does “sl” mean?
a.
into the muscle
b.
into the skin
c.
in a solution
d.
under the tongue
 

 36. 

If a pharmacist asks a technician to repack bulk solid dosage forms into unit-dose packs. What expiration date should appear on the label?
a.
use the original expiration date on the bulk package
b.
3 months
c.
6 months
d.
50% of the original labeled expiration date up to a maximum of one year
 

 37. 

When preparing an IV solution, a technician should work:
a.
2 inches within the hood
b.
at least 6 inches into the hood
c.
as far into the hood as possible
d.
anywhere within the hood
 

 38. 

When cleaning a laminar flow hood, which solution should be used?
a.
iodine
b.
antibacterial soap and water
c.
isopropyl alcohol
d.
hydrogen peroxide
 

 39. 

When cleaning a laminar flow hood, which of the following methods should be used?
a.
Clean the hood from the top to the bottom
b.
Clean the hood from the bottom to the top
c.
Clean the hood from side to side starting in the back and working toward the front
d.
Clean the hood from side to side starting in the front and working toward the back
 

 40. 

What is the appropriate size HEPA filter used in a laminar flow hood?
a.
0.22 micron
b.
0.45 micron
c.
0.5 micron
d.
1 micron
 

 41. 

Which agency is responsible for accrediting institutional settings?
a.
ASHP
b.
JCAHO
c.
APha
d.
FDA
 

 42. 

A compounded prescription requires using 10 tablets, which cost $25.00 per 50 tablets and
100 gm of an ointment which costs $9.00 per pound. If there is a $4.00 dispensing fee, what would the total cost be for this prescription?
a.
$6.89
b.
$8.89
c.
$10.89
d.
$12.89
 

 43. 

Use the following information to answer questions 43, 44 and 45:
If you pay $35.00 for a drug and the selling price is $50.00:

What is the markup for this drug?
a.
$7.00
b.
$10.00
c.
$15.00
d.
$20.00
 

 44. 

What is the percentage markup based on cost?
a.
30%
b.
43%
c.
55%
d.
72%
 

 45. 

What is the percent gross profit?
a.
30%
b.
43%
c.
55%
d.
72%
 

 46. 

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the P & T Committee?
a.
To establish a drug formulary system
b.
To recommend policies involving investigational drugs
c.
To collect data from drug utilization reviews
d.
To investigate drug recalls
 

 47. 

An invoice states that you paid $0.30 per capsule for a bottle containing 50 capsules. What was the total cost of the bottle?
a.
$9.00
b.
$12.00
c.
$15.00
d.
$18.00
 

 48. 

If 15 grams of a 1% ointment are combined with 30 grams of a 2.5% ointment, what is the percentage strength of the final product?
a.
1.5%
b.
1.75%
c.
2.0%
d.
2.25%
 

 49. 

The initial dose of a medication is 0.7mg/kg/hr for 12 hours. How many ml of an IV solution containing 400 mg per 100 ml would be needed for an adult male weighing 154 lbs. during this 12 hour period?
a.
117ml
b.
127ml
c.
137ml
d.
147ml
 

 50. 

You are asked to divide 5 liters of a suspension into an equal number of 10 ml and 15 ml unit dose dispensing cups. How many 10 ml dispensing cups can be made from this quantity?
a.
150
b.
200
c.
250
d.
333
 

 51. 

A patient weighing 110 lbs. is ordered to receive 5 mcg/kg/min of an IV solution containing 600 mg in 250 ml D5W. The IV dose rate is:
a.
125 mcg/min
b.
.125 mg/mm
c.
.25 mg/mm
d.
25 mcg/min
 

 52. 

How much of 90% alcohol must be mixed with 10% alcohol to make 473 ml of a 40% alcohol solution?
a.
167 ml of 90% and 306 ml of 10%
b.
177 m1 of 90% and 296 ml of 10%
c.
197 m1 of 90% and 276 ml of 10%
d.
207 ml of 90% and 266 ml of 10%
 

 53. 

An elixir is available in a 0.05 mg/ml concentration. How many ml are needed for a 0.125 mg dose?
a.
2.0 ml
b.
2.5 ml
c.
3.0 ml
d.
3.5 ml
 

 54. 

If an injectable drug is available in a 0.1 mg/ml concentration, how many ml are needed for a 50 mcg dose?
a.
0.5 ml
b.
0.75 ml
c.
1.0 ml
d.
1.25 ml
 

 55. 

A drug is available in a concentration of 50 mg/10 ml. How many ml are needed for a 3 mg dose?
a.
0.2 ml
b.
0.3 ml
c.
0.6 ml
d.
0.5 ml
 

 56. 

How many ml of water should be added to 95% ethanol to make one liter of a 30% ethanol solution?
a.
373 ml
b.
478 ml
c.
550 ml
d.
685 ml
 

 57. 

Which of the following medications is NOT an antibiotic?
a.
Biaxin
b.
Cefzil
c.
Axid
d.
Zithromax
 

 58. 

Which of the following does NOT require refrigeration?
a.
Muse
b.
Aminophylline injection
c.
Filgrastim (after reconstitution)
d.
NPHU-100
 

 59. 

Which of the following is NOT a narcotic analgesic?
a.
Codeine
b.
Percocet
c.
Demerol
d.
Dolobid
 

 60. 

Which of the following is a NSAID?
a.
ibuprofen
b.
isosorbide dinitrate
c.
nifedipine
d.
APAP
 

 61. 

Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is FALSE?
a.
Drug needs to be stored at room temperature
b.
Sublingual tablets must be dispensed in original glass containers
c.
Sublingual tablets must be replaced after 6 months of opening the container
d.
Drug needs to be protected from freezing
e.
All of the above statements are true
 

 62. 

Define rhino:
a.
ear
b.
nose
c.
blood
d.
intestine
 

 63. 

The decision to administer a drug to a patient must always be weighed against the risk to the patient that takes the drug. This:
a.
refers to toxicity
b.
is called the risk-to-benefit ratio
c.
should be the patient’s decision
d.
should be the doctor’s decision
 

 64. 

The alteration of the chemical structure of a chemical drug is:
a.
absorption
b.
distribution
c.
metabolism
d.
elimination
 

 65. 

A drug that induces insensibility and relieves pain, but is also addicting, which causes dependence, is a _______.
a.
biotoxin
b.
narcotic
c.
pathogen
d.
TPN
 

 66. 

Which of the following anticonvulsants may be used to treat generalized seizures?
a.
phenytoin
b.
carbamzepine
c.
phenobarbital
d.
all of the above
 

 67. 

A doctor orders 125 mg/5ml Dilantin suspension to replace an order that reads “Dilantin 100 mg, dispense 30 doses, sig:  i tid.  What quantity of the suspension should be dispensed?
a.
100 ml
b.
120 mil
c.
300 ml
d.
360 ml
 

 68. 

The appearance of crystals in a mannitol injection would indicate that the product:
a.
was exposed to excessive cold
b.
has settled during shipping
c.
contains impurities and should be returned
d.
was formulated using a sterile saline
 

 69. 

A common name for an inventory process that relies on pharmacy staff to write down items to be reordered is:
a.
a want list
b.
a formulary system
c.
bar-coding
d.
bulk stroage
 

 70. 

Which of the following suppositories should be stored in the refrigerator?
a.
compazine
b.
phenergan
c.
thorazine
d.
tigan
 

 71. 

Before disposal, expired Schedule II controlled substances must be reported to the:
a.
APhA
b.
DEA
c.
FDA
d.
HCFA
 

 72. 

Hospitals or managed healthcare organizations list drugs that have been approved for use on the basis of therapeutic and economic considerations. What is the common name of such a list?
a.
therapeutic compendium
b.
controlled drug compendium
c.
inverstigational drug list
d.
formulary
 

 73. 

An example of a major drug-drug interaction would be:
a.
digoxin-diltiazem
b.
hydrocodone-amoxicillin
c.
penicillin-acetaminophen
d.
warfarin-aspirin
 

 74. 

To dispense an order calling for: Prednisone 5mg, i tid X 3 d, i bid X 3 d, i qd X 3 d, the total quantity needed to dispense is:
a.
15 tablets
b.
18 tablets
c.
21 tablets
d.
24 tablets
 

 75. 

A pharmacy receives an invoice reading “$6,000, net 30”.  Under these payment terms, the pharmacy will be:
a.
given a discount of $30 if the invoice is paid upon receipt
b.
charged no interest if the invoice is paid in full in 30 days
c.
charged no interest if 30% of the $6,000 is paid upon receipt
d.
chared $30 interest for each month the balance remains due
 

 76. 

A prescription for an antibiotic reads: ii gtts au qid. What auxiliary label should be affixed to the container?
a.
take with meals
b.
for the eye
c.
for rectal use
d.
for the ear
 

 77. 

Heparin 25,000 units in 250 ml D5W is running through an administration set delivering 60 gtts/ml.  The flow rate required to deliver a heparin dose of 15 units/min is:
a.
0.09 gtts/min
b.
0.9 gtts/min
c.
9.0 gtts/min
d.
90.0 gtts/min
 

 78. 

How many ounces would you be dispensing for a prescription reading 180 ml?
a.
4 oz
b.
6 oz
c.
8 oz
d.
12 oz
 

 79. 

1 grain is equal to:
a.
15 mg
b.
30 mg
c.
60 mg
d.
120 mg
 

 80. 

If a prescription reads iii teaspoonfuls, what would be another way to write it?
a.
1/2 teaspoon
b.
1 tablespoon
c.
1 1/2 tablespoons
d.
none of the above
 

 81. 

If a prescription ointment is written for 90 gm, how many ounces would you dispense?
a.
1 oz
b.
3 oz
c.
5 oz
d.
7 oz
 

 82. 

The doctor prescribes a cough medicine for a patient that reads 1 pint. How many milliliters are needed to fill this prescription?
a.
120 ml
b.
240 ml
c.
480 ml
d.
960 ml
 

 83. 

Convert 30 grains to grams.
a.
1/2 gm
b.
1 gm
c.
2 gm
d.
4 gm
 

 84. 

What is the abbreviation for grain?
a.
g
b.
gm
c.
gn
d.
gr
 

 85. 

Convert 66 lbs. to kilograms.
a.
15 kg
b.
30 kg
c.
60 kg
d.
90 kg
 

 86. 

Convert 2 mg to grain(s).
a.
1/30 grain
b.
1 grain
c.
30 grains
d.
60 grains
 

 87. 

What is the molecular formula for hydrogen?
a.
H2
b.
HC2
c.
HCl
d.
H2O2
 

 88. 

What is NaHCO3?
a.
sodium bicarbonate
b.
sodium chloride
c.
sodium fluoride
d.
sodium phosphate
 

 89. 

If a patient complains of nausea and vomiting when taking vitamins, what might a suggestion be?
a.
take with food
b.
do not take at all
c.
take in the morning
d.
take at bedtime
 

 90. 

Which may interfere with the absorption of iron?
a.
antacids
b.
milk
c.
tetracycline
d.
all of the above
 

 91. 

What does it mean when a vitamin is water soluble?
a.
the vitamin will not accumulate and cause adverse effects
b.
the vitamin will not accumulate in the body
c.
the vitamin must be dissolved in water prior to absorption
d.
the vitamin will not dissolve
 

 92. 

What medication may be given to induce vomiting?
a.
activated charcoal
b.
ipecac syrup
c.
naloxone
d.
sorbitol
 

 93. 

Death from respiratory depression may result from toxicity of which drug?
a.
acetaminophen
b.
narcotics
c.
theophyllin
d.
all of the above
 

 94. 

Which of the following is not a beta agonist?
a.
albuterol
b.
bitolerol
c.
meoproterenol
d.
zafirlucast
 

 95. 

An agent that promotes the discharge of mucus from the respiratory tract is called a(n):
a.
antihistamine
b.
antitussive
c.
decongestant
d.
expectorant
 

 96. 

Pseudoephedrine is classified as a(n):
a.
antihistamine
b.
antitussive
c.
decongestant
d.
expectorant
 

 97. 

Dextromethorphan is classified as a(n):
a.
antihistamine
b.
antitussive
c.
decongestant
d.
expectorant
 

 98. 

Which of the following may be a side effect of prolonged use of a topical decongestant?
a.
blured vision
b.
rebound congestion
c.
sedation
d.
all of the above
 

 99. 

What is bradycardia?
a.
a very slow contraction pattern of the heart
b.
a very rapid contraction pattern of the heart
c.
a very rapid disroganized contration of the heart
d.
none of the above
 

 100. 

A common side effect of diuretic therapy is:
a.
fluid accumulation
b.
hyperkalemia
c.
loss of potassium
d.
all of the above
 

 101. 

Which of the following may contribute to the development of heart failure?
a.
cardiomyopathy
b.
heart attack
c.
hypertension
d.
all of the above
 

 102. 

Which of the following medications is a diuretic?
a.
amiodarone
b.
atenolol
c.
furosemide
d.
nifedipine
 

 103. 

Which of the following drugs is NOT an antihistamine?
a.
astemizole
b.
fexofenadine
c.
ketaconazole
d.
loratidine
 

 104. 

Which of the following drug-drug interactions would NOT result is death?
a.
astemizole-erythromycin
b.
chlorpheniramine-pseudoephedrine
c.
terfenadine-itraconazole
d.
terfenadine-ketaconazole
 

 105. 

What is the preferred medication to treat flu and fever in children?
a.
acetaminophen
b.
aspirin
c.
ibuprofen
d.
salsalate
 

 106. 

What causes the intensely painful episodes of gout?
a.
high levels of calcium
b.
it is an auto-immune response
c.
joint inflammation caused by uric acid build up forming crystals
d.
there is no known cause
 

 107. 

Which drug is used to prevent pregnant women with HIV from passing the virus to their babies?
a.
didanosine
b.
lamivudine
c.
nelfinavir
d.
zidovudine
 

 108. 

If the laminar flow hood is turned off, how long must it be turned back on before use?
a.
15 minutes
b.
30 minutes
c.
45 minutes
d.
60 minutes
 

 109. 

What does the gauge of a needle signify?
a.
the bore of the needle
b.
the length of the needle
c.
the size of the syringe
d.
none of the above
 

 110. 

When you are preparing an IV, it is important to swab the needle with alcohol.
a.
True
b.
False
 

 111. 

Syringes used in making chemotherapeutic IV’s must be disposed in:
a.
biohazard container
b.
sharps container
c.
incinerator
d.
none of the above
 

 112. 

Which DEA form is needed for ordering Class II controlled substances?
a.
41
b.
106
c.
222
d.
none fo these
 

 113. 

Which DEA form is needed when destroying Class II controlled substances?
a.
41
b.
106
c.
222
d.
none of the above
 

 114. 

Which of the following statements is true?
a.
a state law cannot be more strict than federal law
b.
pharmacy thechnicians are licensed at the federal level
c.
professionals are licensed at the federal level
d.
when there is a conflict, federal law always prevails over state law
 

 115. 

On a written prescription from a doctor, what does “qod” mean?
a.
every day
b.
every other day
c.
every day as needed
d.
four times a day
 

 116. 

The study of the rates at which drugs and their metabolites are absorbed into, distributed throughout, and eliminated from the body is called:
a.
pharmacokinetics
b.
pharmacology
c.
pharmaceutical care
d.
pharmaceutics
 

 117. 

What following medication is NOT available as a transdermal dosing form?
a.
atenolol
b.
climara
c.
duragesic
d.
nitro-dur
 

 118. 

Which of the following is an antacid?
a.
calcium carbonate
b.
cimetidine
c.
ranitidine
d.
sucralfate
 

 119. 

Which of the following medications is a potassium sparing diuretic?
a.
amiloride
b.
spironolactone
c.
triamterene
d.
all of the above
 

 120. 

What drug classification is used to treat hypertension?
a.
alpha and beta blockers
b.
antiemetics
c.
diurectics
d.
a and c
e.
all of the above
 

 121. 

Which of the following medications is NOT used to treat cancer?
a.
5-FU
b.
mercaptopurine
c.
mezocillin
d.
tamoxifen
 

 122. 

Which of the following adverse drug reaction (ADR) processes might a technician be involved in?
a.
analyzing the ADR
b.
documenting the ADR
c.
Identifying the ADR
d.
all of the above
 

 123. 

The major source of contamination in a clean room is:
a.
IV supplies
b.
IV supply boxes
c.
the people in the room
d.
the ventilation
 

 124. 

If a D5%W/0.45% NS 1000 ml solution is administered over 6 hours, how many ml/hr would you need to set the flow rate for?
a.
125 ml/hr
b.
150 ml/hr
c.
167 ml/hr
d.
200 ml/hr
 

 125. 

If a doctor ordered 100mg Dilantin qid, what is the total daily dose the patient will receive?
a.
200mg
b.
300mg
c.
400mg
d.
500mg
 

 126. 

What is theophylline primarily prescribed for?
a.
asthma
b.
birth control
c.
cancer
d.
high blood pressure
 

 127. 

Which of the following is NOT decreased when taking a diuretic?
a.
calcium
b.
magnesium
c.
potassium
d.
sodium
 

 128. 

Which of the following is NOT a life threatening drug interaction?
a.
amoxicillin-dextromethorphan
b.
clarithromycin-ketoconazole
c.
digoxin-erythromycin
d.
viagra-nitroglycerin
 

 129. 

“Arterio” means:
a.
artery
b.
enzyme
c.
heart
d.
joint
 

 130. 

How many tablets need to be dispensed according to this sig: i po tid X 30 d?
a.
30
b.
60
c.
90
d.
120
 

 131. 

How many tablets would you dispense for the following sig: i tab po hs X 1 week?
a.
5
b.
7
c.
9
d.
12
 

 132. 

What does “enteric coated” mean? The medication:
a.
has a gelatin coating on it for easier swallowing
b.
has a coating which helps the medication dissolve more easily in the stomach
c.
has a special coating to prevent dissolution in the stomach
d.
is shaped like a capsule
 

 133. 

What is hepatitis?
a.
a form of cancer
b.
inflammation of the liver
c.
inflammation of the kidneys
d.
several nasal congestion
 

 134. 

Which of the following is an anticoagulant?
a.
aspirin
b.
heparin
c.
warfarin
d.
all of the above
 

 135. 

How would you store insulin?
a.
at room temperature
b.
in the freezer
c.
in the refrigerator
d.
away from natural light
 

 136. 

Which of the following is not a tricyclic antidepressant?
a.
amitriptyline
b.
doxepin
c.
nortriptyline
d.
warfarin
 

 137. 

Which of the following is NOT a NSAID?
a.
acetaminophen
b.
fenoprofen
c.
ketoprofen
d.
ibuprofen
 

 138. 

Which agency regulates drug quality?
a.
DEA
b.
FDA
c.
OSHA
d.
State governments
 

 139. 

If the dose for guaifenesin is 2.5ml, how many doses will a patient receive if given a 12 ounce bottle?
a.
124 doses
b.
136 doses
c.
144 doses
d.
150 doses
 

 140. 

The dose of Penicillin V for a 7-year old is 35 mg/kg/day in divided doses every 6 hours.
How many mg/day should a 60 lb. child receive?
a.
900 mg/day
b.
926 mg/day
c.
954 mg/day
d.
972 mg/day
 

 141. 

In what proportion should 50% alcohol be mixed with 10 % alcohol to obtain a 30 % alcohol solution?
a.
1:1
b.
2:1
c.
1:2
d.
2:3
 

 142. 

How many tablets each containing 250mg of penicillin are needed to make 150ml suspension
containing 100 mg/ml?
a.
50 tablets
b.
60 tablets
c.
70 tablets
d.
80 tablets
 

 143. 

How many ml of a 4 % stock solution is needed to compound an order for 100 ml of 0.04% solution in distilled water?
a.
1 ml
b.
2 ml
c.
4 ml
d.
8 ml
 

 144. 

How many 1 ounce bottles of cough syrup can be made from a 3 liter container of an in-stock syrup?
a.
50 bottles
b.
100 bottles
c.
150 bottles
d.
200 bottles
 

 145. 

A technician has been given 100 ml of 10% acetic acid solution. The pharmacist has asked the tech to dilute the solution to 400 ml with sterile water and to label the solution. What percentage should appear
on the label?
a.
1.5 %
b.
2.0 %
c.
2.5 %
d.
3.0 %
 



 
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