Name: 
 

Pharmacy Technician Practice Test #4



Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
 

 1. 

How many numbers are in each segment of a National Drug Code?
a.
4,3,2
b.
5,3,2
c.
5,4,2
d.
4,3,1
 

 2. 

The technician fails to place a prescription label on the liquid medication bottle. Which law is being broken?
a.
Durham-Humphrey Act
b.
Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
c.
Kefauver-Harris Act
d.
Poison Prevention Act
 

 3. 

A technician breaks her little toe when she drops a box of labels on her foot. What law allows the employee to collect damages from the employer?
a.
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
b.
MSDS
c.
Occupational and Safety Act
d.
Kefauver-Harris Act
 

 4. 

What is the drug classification of quinapril?
a.
Calcium Channel Blocker
b.
Beta Blocker
c.
Cardiac Glycoside
d.
ACE inhibitor
 

 5. 

Which of the following medications is a single active ingredient item?
a.
Bactrim DS
b.
Maxzide
c.
Estrace
d.
Premphase
 

 6. 

What schedule is Tylenol #3?
a.
I
b.
II
c.
III
d.
IV
 

 7. 

Where is Interon stored?
a.
In the refrigerator
b.
15-30 degrees Celsius
c.
35-45 degrees Celsius
d.
60-85 degrees Fahrenheit
 

 8. 

Which of the following insulin is allowed in an IV bag?
a.
Humalog
b.
Lente
c.
NPH
d.
Regular
 

 9. 

What is the meaning of the abbreviation “ung”?
a.
As directed
b.
As needed
c.
Ointment
d.
For both eyes
 

 10. 

What is the maximum number of refills allowed on a Diazepam prescription?
a.
0
b.
3
c.
5
d.
12
 

 11. 

Which dosage form releases carbon dioxide when placed in water?
a.
capsules
b.
tablets
c.
buccals
d.
effervescents
 

 12. 

A customer requests that the pharmacy from now on to place their medication in an EZ open container. Which law allows the pharmacy to dispense the prescription in this manner?
a.
CSA
b.
OSHA
c.
Kefauver-Harris Act
d.
Poison Prevention Act
 

 13. 

To calculate the price of a prescription, which of the following formulas would the pharmacist or the pharmacy technician use?
a.
Cost + Fee
b.
MAC + dispensing fee
c.
AAC + dispensing fee
d.
(AWP - % discount) + dispensing fee
 

 14. 

Which of the following is not a proton pump inhibitor?
a.
Prevacid
b.
Nexium
c.
Ranitidine
d.
Aciphex
 

 15. 

If a person is suffering from a severe case of vomiting. Which dosage form of Phenergan would be most effective?
a.
Oral suspension
b.
Capsule
c.
Suppository
d.
Effervescent tablets
 

 16. 

How many milligrams of penicillin are needed to make 50ml of a 1:500 solution?
a.
0.1
b.
1
c.
100
d.
0.00004
 

 17. 

What is the responsibility of the pharmacy technician if the customer wants to purchase a bottle of aspirin and the prescription refill they are picking up is warfarin?
a.
Tell the patient that they are not supposed to take both of these together
b.
Refuse to ring up the customer
c.
Ring up the customer
d.
Do not ring up the customer until the pharmacist can be informed of the interaction possibility and a chance to counsel the patient.
 

 18. 

What is the brand name of allopurinol?
a.
Zyloprim
b.
Lipitor
c.
Zocor
d.
Tricor
 

 19. 

What are the maximum allowable refills allowed on Celexa, Ritalin, and Vicodin?
a.
12, 0, 5
b.
1, 2, 4
c.
12, 0, 6
d.
12, 2, 5
 

 20. 

The pharmacist asks you to dissolve 15 grams of a drug in 200 ml of solution. What is the percentage of the solution?
a.
13
b.
7.5
c.
5
d.
75
 

 21. 

The physician orders Premarin, gr. 1/100. What strength is this in milligrams?
a.
0.625
b.
0.3
c.
9
d.
1.25
 

 22. 

A child weighs 22 lbs. The doctor writes that they are to receive a drug at 50mg/kg/day divided into tid dosing.  What is the amount of each dose?
a.
167
b.
125
c.
806
d.
500
 

 23. 

Convert 38 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit?
a.
60
b.
98.6
c.
86
d.
100.4
 

 24. 

What is room temperature?
a.
<46 degrees F (8 degrees C)
b.
59-86 degrees F (20 - 40 degrees C)
c.
59-86 degrees F (15 - 30 degrees C)
d.
0-72 degrees F (-17 - 22 degrees C)
 

 25. 

Which class of antidepressants requires a wash out period before starting a new class of antidepressants?
a.
ACE inhibitors
b.
MAOI
c.
SSRI
d.
TCA
 

 26. 

Whcih of the following is not required on a prescriptino label?
a.
Lot number
b.
Direction for use
c.
Prescriber’s DEA number
d.
a and c
 

 27. 

Interpret the following latin:  “i-ii cap stat, i q 6 h, NMT 5/12 H”
a.
Take one to two capsules immediately then 1 capsule every 6 hours. No more than 5 capsules in a 12 hour period.
b.
Take one to eleven capsules immediately then 1 capsule every 6 hours. No more than 5 capsules in a 5 hour period.
c.
Take one to two tablets immediately, then 1 tablet every 6 hours. No more than 5 tablets in a 12 hour period.
d.
Take one to two capsules immediately, then 1 capsule every 6 hours. No more than 5 capsules per day.
 

 28. 

If a pharmacist told you to make 24 of these dosage forms using the punch method, what dosage form are you making?
a.
Suppository
b.
Buccal
c.
Emulsion
d.
Capsule
 

 29. 

The dry gum method (continental method) is used in the making of which dosage form?
a.
Emulsion
b.
Solutions
c.
Suppositories
d.
Tablets
 

 30. 

Patient Phyliss Percocet drops off a prescription from Dr. Randall Dolittle MD, determine which of the following is Dr. Dolittle's correct DEA.
a.
MD5516044
b.
DD5516048
c.
BD5516046
d.
AD5516045
 

 31. 

A doctor calls in a prescription for #60 Percocet with 2 refills for patient XY on 12/13. Patient XY calls to say that he is out of town and will not be able to pick up the prescription until 12/21. Which of the following is true about the Percocet prescription?
a.
The doctor cannot call in a Percocet prescription; a hard copy is needed.
b.
No refills are allowed on a Percocet prescription.
c.
Patient XY must pick up the Percocet prescription before 12/20 (within 7 days of written date) or the medication is not allowed to be dispensed.
d.
A & B
 

 32. 

How many mcg of Fluoride are in 2 ounces of 0.25mg/ml Poly-Vi-Flor drops?
a.
500 mcg
b.
1500 mcg
c.
7500 mcg
d.
15000 mcg
 

 33. 

You are presented with a prescription for 180 g of 15% Benzoyl Peroxide cream. You have a 300g jar of benzoyl peroxide cream labeled 100mg/g and a stock bottle of benzoyl peroxide on hand. How much of each do you need to fill the prescription?
a.
25 g of stock bottle; 155g of 100mg/g jar
b.
155 g of stock bottle; 25g of 100mg/g jar
c.
10 g of stock bottle; 170g of 100mg/g jar
d.
170 g of stock bottle; 10g of 100mg/g jar
 

 34. 

Which of the following medications do not require a medication guide to be dispensed along with it?
a.
Amiodarone
b.
Cymbalta
c.
Vicoprofen
d.
Digoxin
e.
All of these medications require med guides
 

 35. 

Which of the following medications is not a schedule III substance according to the DEA?
a.
Provigil
b.
Androgel
c.
Vicodin
d.
Hycotuss syrup
 

 36. 

Which of the following generic/brand are incorrectly matched?
a.
Compazine®-prochlorperazine
b.
Robaxin®-methazolamide
c.
Cataflam®-diclofenac
d.
Amaryl®-glimepiride
 

 37. 

What do the last 2 numbers of NDC 00024-5421-31 refer to?
a.
manufacturer
b.
package size
c.
medication strength
d.
lot number
 

 38. 

Which of the following does not have an OTC equivalent of the same strength?
a.
Prilosec® 20mg
b.
Meclizine 25mg
c.
Zantac® 150mg
d.
Ibuprofen 400mg
e.
All have OTC equivalents
 

 39. 

Which of the following is a calcium channel blocker?
a.
Tenormin
b.
Zocor
c.
Cardizem
d.
Lasix
 

 40. 

If 250 ml of D5W is to be infused over 4 hours and the drops are set at 20 gtts/ml, what is the drops/min?
a.
22.5
b.
20.8
c.
50
d.
20000
 

 41. 

What is the days of supply for 30 tablets if the directions stated, “i t po tid.”
a.
30
b.
15
c.
10
d.
8
 

 42. 

What does it mean when the directins says “prn?”
a.
Per rectum
b.
By evening
c.
As directed
d.
As needed
 

 43. 

Which of the following is does not come in a transdermal patch?
a.
Estradiol
b.
Clondine
c.
Methylphenidate
d.
Lopid
 

 44. 

What it the generic name of Biaxin?
a.
Fexofenadine
b.
Clarithromycin
c.
Clotrimazole
d.
Clonidine
 

 45. 

A presciption for Amoxicillin reads, “i tea po tid q.s. 10d”.  What does q.s. mean?
a.
right ear
b.
right eye
c.
quantity sufficient
d.
take stat
 

 46. 

What classification is Robaxin?
a.
Antitussive
b.
Muscle Relaxer
c.
Antidepressant
d.
Antiviral
 

 47. 

How many inventory turns would a pharmacy experience if their initial inventory of the account period was $200,000, the final inventory of the period was $230,000, and they had sales of $1.1 million?
a.
5
b.
4.7
c.
5.5
d.
12
 

 48. 

Which of the following is the generic name for Percodan?
a.
Acetaminophen + Aspirin
b.
Acetaminophen + oxycodone
c.
Aspirin + oxycodone
d.
Hydrocodone + Aspirin
 

 49. 

Which of the following products requires refrigeration?
a.
Clarithromycin after reconstitution
b.
Latanoprost
c.
Bactrim suspension
d.
Losarten
 

 50. 

An 18 gauge needle is ____________ compared to a 30 gauge needle.
a.
Longer in length
b.
Larger in diameter
c.
Shorter in length
d.
Smaller in diameter
 

 51. 

Tetracycline requires which auxiliary label(s)?
a.
Avoid sunlight
b.
Take all medication until gone
c.
Take 1 hour before or 2 hours after taking antacids or dairy products
d.
All of the above
 

 52. 

Which of the following is not an automated dispensing system?
a.
Pyxis MedStation
b.
Baxter SureMed
c.
Robot Rx
d.
Periodic Automated Replacement (PAR)
 

 53. 

What abbreviation means “into the skin?”
a.
ID
b.
IM
c.
SC
d.
IV
 

 54. 

A technician is able to do all of the following except:
a.
Compounding
b.
Fill CII prescriptions
c.
Copies from pharmacy to pharmacy
d.
Bill third party payers
 

 55. 

If a person is deficient in cyanocobalamin, what should the patient take?
a.
Vitamin B 12
b.
Vitamin B 6
c.
Folic Acid
d.
Niacin
 

 56. 

What schedule is codeine?
a.
II
b.
III
c.
IV
d.
V
 

 57. 

What size particles are caught by a HEPA filter?
a.
0.18
b.
0.22
c.
0.30
d.
0.42
 

 58. 

How many ounces are in 1.5 L?
a.
45
b.
50
c.
5
d.
40
 

 59. 

A doctor’s order for Armour Thyroid 1 1/2 grain daily. How many milligrams is this?
a.
15
b.
30
c.
60
d.
90
 

 60. 

When would you use a filter needle?
a.
Extracting liquid out of an ampoule
b.
Extracting liquid out of a vial
c.
Withdrawing liquid from one vial to another vial
d.
When using Depo-testosterone
 

 61. 

Which of the following is considered Durable Medical Equipment?l
a.
Cane
b.
Insulin
c.
Syringe
d.
Vial
 

 62. 

What is the generic name for Provera?
a.
Estradiol
b.
Progestin
c.
medroxyprogesterone
d.
pravastatin
 

 63. 

What is the generic name for Narcan®?
a.
Naloxone
b.
Raloxifene
c.
Norethindrone
d.
Nortriptyline
 

 64. 

Which reference book would you use to search for approved drugs with therapeutic equivalence?
a.
Red Book
b.
Orange Book
c.
Facts and Comparisons
d.
Merck Manual
 

 65. 

Which of these are an example of therapuetic equivalence?
a.
simvastatin - lovastatin
b.
quinipril - furosemide
c.
Zestril - lisinopril
d.
Ortho Novum 7/7/7- Ortho Novum 1/35
 

 66. 

What is the brand name for levobunolol?
a.
Isoptin
b.
Lopressor
c.
Lotrel
d.
Betagan
 

 67. 

Medications that end in “-pril” are what classification?
a.
Calcium Channel Blockers
b.
Ace Inhibitors
c.
Diuretics
d.
Beta Blockers
 

 68. 

The selling price is $298 and the markup is $154. What is the cost and the percent markup?
a.
$154, 15%
b.
$144, 106%
c.
$144, 1.06%
d.
$298, 48%
 

 69. 

A customer comes to you (a technician) and tells you a story of their rash they get each year around Christmas time. What are you allowed to do?
a.
Tell them that you use Benedryl cream when you get a rash and that should work for them.
b.
Tell them to take 2 tablets of Benedryl every 6 hours and warn them of the drowsiness.
c.
Have the customer talk to the pharmacist.
d.
Tell them they have to talk with their doctor.
 

 70. 

What is the generic name for Dyazide®?
a.
doxazosin
b.
triamterene-hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
c.
dutasteride
d.
disopyramide
 

 71. 

The classification of drugs that end in “-azepam” are what?
a.
benzodiazepines
b.
CIV
c.
anti-anxiety agents
d.
all of the above
 

 72. 

What does OBRA stand for?
a.
Occupational But Rational Act
b.
Occupational Health and Safety Act
c.
Omnibus Reconciliation Act
d.
b and c
 

 73. 

What is duplicate therapy?
a.
Two medications with the same identical active ingredient that does the same end effect.
b.
Two medications with different active ingredients that do the same end effect.
c.
Two medications (not necessarily in the same classification) that do the same end effect.
d.
All of the above
 

 74. 

The brand name of amlodopine is?
a.
Norvasc®
b.
Tenormin®
c.
Lipitor®
d.
Zocor®
 

 75. 

How long does a laminar flow hood need to run before using?
a.
15-30 minutes
b.
30-60 minutes
c.
60-90 minutes
d.
4 hours
 

 76. 

Which of the following is an antifungal?
a.
tretinoin
b.
tacrolimus
c.
ketoconazole
d.
clobetasole
 

 77. 

What do you use to wipe down a laminar flow hood?
a.
50% isopropyl alcohol
b.
70% isopropyl alcohol
c.
90% isopropyl alcohol
d.
sterile water
 

 78. 

Which of the following is classified as a CI?
a.
Hydrocodone
b.
Marijuana
c.
Cocaine
d.
Dextroamphetamine
 

 79. 

What is the maximum daily dosage of APAP?
a.
1000mg
b.
2000mg
c.
3000mg
d.
4000mg
 

 80. 

How is insulin injected and what length needle would you use?
a.
IM , 1 inch
b.
SC , 5/8 inch
c.
SQ ,  inch
d.
b and c
 

 81. 

Interpret the following latin: “5 gtts as q1h x 24 h, qid x 7d”.
a.
Use 5 puffs by mouth as needed for 1 hour on the first day then four times a day for 7 days.
b.
Insert 5 drops as needed every hour for the first day then four times a day for 7 days.
c.
Insert 5 drops in the left eye every hour for 24 hours then four times a day for 7 days.
d.
Insert 5 drops in the left ear every hour for 24 hours then four times a day for 7 days.
 

 82. 

Which of the following does not mean sustained release?
a.
LA
b.
CR
c.
Depot
d.
All the above are correct.
 

 83. 

Absorption of a medication (i.e. tablet) means?
a.
Drug goes to where it is needed.
b.
From administration site into the bloodstream
c.
Drug is broken down by the liver
d.
Excretion from the body
 

 84. 

The purpose of enteric coating a medication is to ...?
a.
To prevent dissolution inside the stomach and to pass into the intestines to be dissolved.
b.
To avoid the “first pass” effect of the liver.
c.
To be absorbed faster into the blood stream.
d.
To mask the bad taste of the medication.
 

 85. 

Translate the Roman numerals: MCMXII and XLIII
a.
11112 and 43
b.
1912 and 43
c.
912 and 63
d.
2192 and 63
 

 86. 

A powder-filled capsule contains 125mg of medication. How many capsules will you need to accumulate 0.15 kg of the active ingredient?
a.
19
b.
834
c.
1200
d.
1500
 

 87. 

If the dose is 0.6 g / day and the drug is to be given in three equally divided doses each day. What is the amount of each dose in milligrams and how many days will it last if you weigh out a total of 2 g?
a.
300 mg and 7 days
b.
250 mg and 14 days
c.
200 mg and 10 days
d.
600 mg and 4 days
 

 88. 

If you have a flow rate of 30 drops/minute using a 20 drop set, how many liters would you deliver in 24 hours?
a.
0.6
b.
600
c.
2160
d.
2.16
 

 89. 

Which of the following is the most accurate method of measuring 25ml of water?
a.
Fill a conical graduate, hold up to eyelevel, measure to 25ml mark by the top of the meniscus.
b.
Place a graduated cylinder on a hard, level surface. Bend your knees or bend over to get your eye level down even to the 25ml mark and then proceed to fill the cylinder to the 25ml mark. Read from the bottom of the meniscus.
c.
Place a graduated cylinder on a hard, level surface. Bend your knees or bend over to get your eye level down even to the 25ml mark and then proceed to fill the cylinder to the 25ml mark. Read from the top of the meniscus.
d.
Place a conical graduate on a hard, level surface. Bend your knees or bend over to get your eye level down even to the 25ml mark and then proceed to fill the cylinder to the 25ml mark. Read from the bottom of the meniscus.
 

 90. 

Which two antibiotics must remain at room temperature after reconstitution?
a.
Biaxin®, Omnicef®
b.
Biaxin®, minocycline
c.
EryPed®, Omnicef®
d.
cefaclor, EES®
 

 91. 

All of the following are beta blocker except?
a.
Sectral®
b.
Zebeta®
c.
Plendil®
d.
Normadyne®
 

 92. 

When working with a biohazardous material, what laminar flow hood would you use?
a.
Vertical laminar flow hood
b.
Safety biological cabinet
c.
Horizontal laminar flow hood
d.
a and b
 

 93. 

Distribution of a medication inside the body means?
a.
Drug goes to where it is needed.
b.
From administration site into the bloodstream
c.
Drug is broken down by the liver
d.
Excretion from the body
 

 94. 

Which pairs of medications are film coated to mask the bad taste of the medication?
a.
Biaxin®, Armour Thyroid®
b.
Depakote®, Biaxin®
c.
Zithromax®, Bactrim DS®
d.
Nitroglycerin, Inderal LA®
 

 95. 

The definition of a “Class A” environment is?
a.
An area containing no more than 10 particles, 0.3 microns or larger in size per cubic square foot of air to prepare sterile products.
b.
An area containing no more than 100 particles, 0.3 microns or larger in size per cubic square foot of air to prepare sterile products.
c.
An area containing no more than 100 particles, 0.5 microns or larger in size per cubic square foot of air to prepare sterile products.
d.
An area containing no more than 1000 particles, 0.5 microns or larger in size per cubic square foot of air to prepare sterile products.
 

 96. 

Out of all the components that are added to a TPN bag, which one supplies the most energy?
a.
amino acids
b.
Dextrose
c.
Fats
d.
Electrolytes
 

 97. 

Albuterol® is to bronchodilator as is fluticasone is to ______________________.
a.
Tachycardia
b.
Corticosteroid
c.
Antacid
d.
Antitussive
 

 98. 

Which type of mortar and pestle is used to blend powders?
a.
Wedgewood
b.
Glass
c.
Porcelain
d.
None of the above
 

 99. 

What is the name of the opening of a needle of a syringe?
a.
Shaft
b.
Hub
c.
Lumen
d.
Bevel
 

 100. 

Laminar flow hoods and HEPA filters must be certified how often?
a.
Every 3 months on both
b.
Every 3 months on flow hoods and 6 months on HEPA filters.
c.
Every 6 months on both
d.
Once a year and recorded
 

 101. 

101. The Controlled Substance Act of 1970 is enforced and regulated by whom?
a.
CSA
b.
DEA
c.
FDA
d.
OSHA
 

 102. 

Metabolism of a medication inside the body means?
a.
Drug goes to where it is needed.
b.
From administration site into the bloodstream
c.
Drug is broken down by the liver
d.
Excretion from the body
 

 103. 

There are 100mg/tbsp. How many grams are in 2 fluid ounces?
a.
0.4
b.
90
c.
0.2
d.
4
 

 104. 

Which of the following is correct concerning DEA forms?
a.
41 – Theft ; 106 – Destruction of outdates ; 222 – ordering of Schedule IIs ; 224 – Pharmacy’s registration.
b.
41 – Destruction of outdates ; 106 – Theft ; 222 – ordering of Schedule IIs ; 224 – Pharmacy’s registration.
c.
41 – Must be sent to the DEA ; 106 – Pharmacy must notify DEA, local police, and send original to DEA ; 222 – Triplicate, one item per line ; 224 - Must re-new every 3 years.
d.
b and c
 

 105. 

Which drug does not need to be packaged in a child-resistant package?
a.
Nitroglycerin
b.
Estradiol
c.
Lanoxin
d.
a and c
 

 106. 

A 40% solution has been diluted to 500ml, and is now a 15% solution. What was the beginning volume of the 40% solution?
a.
187.5 ml
b.
1333 ml
c.
13.33 ml
d.
None of the above
 

 107. 

A pharmacy technician has been asked to add 25 units of insulin to an intravenous bag. How many ml is this technician going to add?
a.
0.25 ml
b.
0.4 ml
c.
2.5 ml
d.
4 ml
 

 108. 

How much active ingredient is in 200ml of a 1:15,000 solution?
a.
75 mg
b.
0.1 g
c.
0.01 g
d.
7.5 mg
 

 109. 

Which of the following are Calcium Channel Blockers?
a.
Calan®
b.
Isoptin®
c.
Veralan®
d.
All of the above
 

 110. 

Which of the following is true about OSHA?
a.
Occupational And Safety Act of 1970 ensures a safe and healthy workplace for employees.
b.
Ensures an injury reporting system for job-related injuries and illnesses.
c.
Conducts audits to ensure compliance and to reduce hazards in the workplace.
d.
All of the above are true.
 

 111. 

Which symptom would an antitussive relieve?
a.
Runny nose
b.
Cough
c.
Nausea and vomiting
d.
Phlegm
 

 112. 

Which of the following is not a laxative?
a.
Citrucel®
b.
Imodium®
c.
Senna®
d.
Castor Oil
 

 113. 

A patient brings in a prescription for Dyazide®.  The following medications are on the patient’s profile.  Which would you bring to the pharmacist’s attemtion?
a.
Potassium
b.
Thiamine
c.
Docusate®
d.
Zofran®
 

 114. 

What is the generic name of Prevacid®?
a.
omeprazole
b.
cimetidine
c.
lansoprazole
d.
misoprostol
 

 115. 

What classification of medication would relieve sneezing and runny nose and hives?
a.
Expectorant
b.
Antitussive
c.
Antiemetic
d.
Antihistamine
 

 116. 

A new patient to your pharmacy hands you prescriptions for metformin, levoxyl, and sertraline. You ask for their allergies and health conditions and the patient tells you that they have no health conditions. What should you do?
a.
Proceed to input their third party information.
b.
You’re done. Input the prescription.
c.
Tell them that they are a liar because these prescriptions are for certain medical conditions.
d.
Very politely, confirm their prescriptions with the patient and ask if they are taking anything else that might not be in our system yet. Then input Diabetes, Hypothyroidism, and Depression into the health conditions.
 

 117. 

Coumadin (warfarin) interacts with all of the following except?
a.
Ibuprofen
b.
Aspirin
c.
Amoxicillin
d.
All of the above
 

 118. 

What is the term for the process when a pharmacist places tablets in a mortar and crushes them into a powder with a pestle and mixes with another powder?
a.
Trituration
b.
Levigation
c.
Reconstitution
d.
Alligation
 

 119. 

Lanoxin is to arrhythmias as is Norvasc is to ___________________.
a.
Depression
b.
Hypertension
c.
Hormone Replacement
d.
Stomach Ulcers
 

 120. 

How many inches is the minimum distance that is considered safe for a technician to put their arms inside a flow hood?
a.
5 inches
b.
6 inches
c.
7 inches
d.
8 inches
 

 121. 

What dosage form has the highest concentration of alcohol?
a.
Tincture
b.
Elixir
c.
Suspension
d.
Syrup
 

 122. 

A 20% (W/V) topical antiseptic is available in the pharmacy. The pharmacist receives an order for 1 liter of a 1:2000 solution. How much of the original solution will be necessary to fill the order?
a.
400 ml
b.
250 ml
c.
5 ml
d.
2.5 ml
 

 123. 

A formulary is developed by who?
a.
CEO
b.
DEA
c.
P & T Commitee
d.
FDA
 

 124. 

What schedule is Robitussin AC?
a.
II
b.
III
c.
IV
d.
V
 

 125. 

If a needle is inserted improperly through the rubber of a vial, a small piece of rubber may be caught inside the needle and may cause contamination. This is called what?
a.
Coring
b.
Negative pressure
c.
Levigation
d.
Positive Pressure
 

 126. 

Which of the following requires a patient package insert (PPI)?
a.
Digoxin
b.
Albuterol
c.
Betagan
d.
Tretinoin
 

 127. 

Which of the following can result in death?
a.
Class I recall
b.
Class II recall
c.
Class III recall
d.
None results in death
 

 128. 

A repackaging log requires what for documentation?
a.
date of repackaging, quantity repacked, vial size
b.
patient’s name, lot number, manufacturer
c.
name of drug, R.Ph. initials, expiration date of manufacturer
d.
quantity repacked, name of drug, doctor’s name
 

 129. 

What is the infusion rate in ml/hr if 1000ml is infused over 6 hours?
a.
167 ml/hr
b.
56 ml/hr
c.
6.9 ml/hr
d.
250 ml/hr
 

 130. 

After a customer picks up their prescription, we ask them to sign what?
a.
Prescription logbook
b.
Signature log
c.
Insurance compliance log
d.
Exempt log book
 

 131. 

Which of the following is not used for relief of migraines?
a.
Zomig
b.
Maxalt
c.
Zofran
d.
Imitrex
 

 132. 

How often is the pharmacy required to do an inventory of all their controlled substances?
a.
daily
b.
monthly
c.
yearly
d.
every two years
 

 133. 

What is required on the prescription if it is for Vicodin?
a.
Date
b.
Quantity
c.
DEA Number
d.
All of the above
 

 134. 

What does “U&C” mean?
a.
Take when you get up in the morning and with meals.
b.
Usual and Customary
c.
Usual cost
d.
Unusual cost
 

 135. 

Which of the following set of medications must be stored below 46 degrees F ( 8 degrees Celsius)?
a.
Calcitonin-salmon, promethegan suppositories, melphalan
b.
Ritonavir, latanoprost, estradiol/norethindrone transdermals, formoterol
c.
Filgrastim, interferon, epoetin alfa, norelgestromin/ethinyl estradiol
d.
Trifluridine, etanercept, chlorambucil
e.
All of these
 

 136. 

What medication is stored in the freezer?
a.
Postaglandin®
b.
Gentamicin IV bag
c.
Vancommycin IV bag
d.
All of the above
 

 137. 

What medication is injected IM?
a) Demerol
b) Humulin N
c) Humalog
d) Lantus
a.
Demerol
b.
Humulin N
c.
Humalog
d.
Lantus
 

 138. 

What is JCAHO responsible for?
a.
Ensures compliance that controlled substance invoices are filed separately from other invoices and are readily retrievable.
b.
Ensures medications are used safely, effectively, and appropriately.
c.
Ensures a safe workplace for employees
d.
Regulates drug advertising from the manufacturer
 

 139. 

What term is the process that the third party payer sets a price for a drug?
a.
Levigation
b.
Infiltration
c.
Adjudication
d.
Antagonist
 

 140. 

How many ml are in 3 gallons?
a.
7570
b.
11,355
c.
9000
d.
5445
 

 141. 

What does ‘Rx’ stand for?
a.
Recipe
b.
Registered Pharmacist
c.
To Take
d.
a and c
 

 142. 

Which of the following is a concern when an IV has fats in it?
a.
Instability
b.
Appearance
c.
PH
d.
All of the above
 

 143. 

Which of the following is false about MSDS?
a.
Stands for Material Safety Data Sheets
b.
Only compounding pharmacies are required to keep these on hand.
c.
Regulated by OSHA
d.
They describe in detail the ingredients contained in the product and any emergency procedures for improper handling or accidental ingestion.
 

 144. 

What medication cannot be put in a syringe?
a.
Potassium Chloride
b.
Furosemide
c.
Demerol
d.
All cannot be put in a syringe
 

 145. 

Upon registering a new customer into the computer system, they tell you that they are allergic to Gantrisin. What would you put under their allergy profile?
a.
Penicillin
b.
Erythromycin
c.
Sulfa
d.
Quinolones
 

 146. 

Which of the following is false about Minimum/Maximum?
a.
It is an inventory ordering system
b.
The pharmacy has set a predetermined order quantity (PAR).
c.
This method ensures the pharmacy maintains an adequate supply of medication on the shelves.
d.
This method incurs additional costs from purchasing from a wholesaler/vendor.
 

 147. 

What is the 80/20 rule?
a.
80% of the medication on hand is all fast movers and 20% are the infrequent slow movers.
b.
80% of the medication on hand must be generics and 20% are brand name items.
c.
Focuses on the top 20% of the items carried in a pharmacy and then 80% of the pharmacy inventory drug cost comes from this 20%
d.
80% of the inventory medication comes from one wholesaler and 20% comes from outside vendors.
 

 148. 

What medication can only be dispensed/stored in glass containers?
a.
Nitroglycerin sublingual
b.
Depakene liquid
c.
Furadantin liquid
d.
All of the above
 

 149. 

What classification does Ceftin® fall under?
a.
Penicillins
b.
Cephalosporins
c.
Macrolides
d.
Quinolones
 

 150. 

Which of the following is true about Certified Pharmacy Technician recertification?
a.
Required every 2 years
b.
CPhT must earn 20 hours of CE, one hour of which is law
c.
PTCB will mail a recertification packet to you 60 days before recertification date.
d.
All of the above are true
 



 
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